[1] 1810.
Chap. I. 4. p. 30.
'Making himself equal with God'.
Whoever reads the four verses (John v. 16-19,) attentively, judging of
the meaning of each part by the context, must needs, I think, see that
the [Greek: ison heauton poion ton Theo] (18) refers,--not to the
[Greek: patera idion elege ton Theon], (18) or the [Greek: ho pataer
mou] (17), but--to the [Greek: ergazetai, kago ergazomai] (17). The 19th
verse, which is directly called Jesus' reply, takes no notice whatever
of the [Greek: ho pataer mou] (17), but consists wholly of a
justification of the [Greek: kago ergazomai].
1803.
The above was written many years ago. I still think the remark
plausible, though I should not now express myself so positively. I
imagined the Jews to mean: "he has evidently used the words [Greek: ho
pataer mou]--not in the sense in which all good men may use them,
but--in a literal sense, because by the words that followed, [Greek:
ergazetai, kago ergazomai], he makes himself equal to God." To justify
these words seemed to me to be the purport of Christ's reply.
Chap. II. 1. p. 34.
[Greek: (Philon)--peri men oun ta theia kai patria mathaemata, poson
te kai paelikon eisenaenektai ponon, ergo pasi daelos kai peri ta
philosopha de kai eleutheria taes exothen paideias oios tis aen, ouden
dei legein hoti kai malista taen kata Platona kai Pythagoran ezaelokos
agogaen, dienegken apantas tous kath' heauton, historeitai].
Euseb.
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