Beck to answer the following question: By what
right--moral, legal, or equitable--did Russia make Servia's cause its
own? Did Russia have any alliance with Servia? I further ask: What
privity existed between Austria, Servia, and Russia?
Suppose Mr. Beck can justify the action of Russia, although a "rank
outsider," in taking Servia's part, how can he possibly justify the
positively unreasonable and, under the circumstances, most dangerous
step of "actual mobilization" on the part of Russia?
Mr. Beck has tried to justify the mobilization by quoting the Russian
excuse "that Russia's mobilization was only for a defense against
Austria." On close examination what does this amount to? It resolves
itself into a situation somewhat like this: A sends an ultimatum to B
seeking redress for a wrong committed by B upon A, whereupon C mobilizes
"for defense against A." I leave it to the average American of ordinary
intelligence to find a reason for C's mobilization "for defense against
A." Mr. Beck might as well try to justify a mobilization on the part of
Japan if the United States was preparing to invade Mexico for the
purpose of redressing an insult to the American flag.
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