The article in question is based on the following statement: "Any
discussion of the ethical merits of this great controversy must start
with the assumption that there is such a thing as international
morality." How does Mr. Beck define "international morality"? How can he
assume that to exist which each of the contending nations by their
diverse actions prove to be non-extant? How can he claim that there is
an "international morality" of accepted form when each nation claims
that its interpretation must be accepted by the others?
Mr. Beck's allegation that the question "Was England justified in
declaring war against Germany?" is more easily disposed of than the
questions "Was Austria justified in declaring war against Servia?" and
"Was Germany justified in declaring war against Russia and France?"
proves two things--first, that his interest lies primarily in the
vindication of England; second, that he disregards the fundamental
causes and recognizes only the precipitating causes of the war.
The precipitating cause of the war between England and Germany is
verbosely if inadequately covered by his article.
Pages:
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71